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The verb, “eimi” occurs 2462 times in the new testament in various forms, but in only about 67 of these cases is the first person nominative pronoun, “ego” used with it. Also would the context allow a divine name name/title interpretation of john 8:58. The new testament shows an interesting and (somewhat) unexpected pattern in the use of the greek phrase, “ego eimi”, “i am”
The exact phrase “ego eimi” occurs 48 times in the new testament I wonder how john 8:58's prin abraam genesthai ego eimi, would be translated It also occurs 11 times as “eimi ego” which has a very similar but still different construction and all are relational or predicative.
Jesus did not say ego eimi ho on in john 8:58
As what is shown on the lxx The appearance of ho on revelation 1:4;8, 4:8, 11:17and 16:5 are all applied to god and not to jesus Exodus 3:14 should be read from the context of the whole passage. What is the oldest record of the interpretation that the "I am" ego eimi in John 8:58 claim is Yahweh claim of Exodus 3:14? Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ.
The absolute use of the greek egō eimi (without complement or predicate) is (in the words of c.k Barrett) hardly a greek expression, .ἐγώ εἰμι is in itself (as greek) a meaningless expression. The standard way to translate jesus' john 8:58 statement is "before abraham was, i am." Yet, a minority position is to translate 8:58b as 'i am he'
This is the view taken by sozzini as.
However, εἰμί (eimi) is capable of much more I note that both thayer and bdag list numerous uses for this versatile verb, the first of which is invariably meaning to exist More specifically, both list john 1:1a as a statement of existence The distinguishing characteristic of stative verbs is their use to show the status of something.
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